I would very much like to know the legal basis upon which a Texas judge enjoined the City of San Antonio from naming a street after Cesar Chavez. Given the two hundred name changes that went unchallenged (according to the proponent of the name change), it’s hard to believe there’s some sort of statutory standard at issue here. And while I’m certain it’s a motivating facor, surely even a Texas judge would not explicitly adopt the obviously racist reasons put forth by the opponents.
This would appear to be an almost pure political question, meaning, as we learned in first year law school, that judges are supposed to avoid them at all costs.
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